I am confused with general notion of integral models of algebraic varieties. Let us focus on, say, algebraic curves.
If $X$ is a not necessarily projective algebraic curve over a number field $K$, is the set $S$ of bad primes for $X$ intrinsic?
Here is an example for giving a feeling for my usage of the word 'intrinsic': let $E_1$ and $E_2$ be elltipic curves over $\mathbb{Q}$ defined by the equations $y^2=x^3+x$ and $v^2=u^3+16u$ respectively. Then $E_1\simeq E_2$ over $\mathbb{Q}$. But, if I did not make any mistake, it seems like that 2 is a bad prime for $E_2$ which is not for $E_1$. With this example, I think that the set of bad primes for a curve is intrinsic meaning that even though $X$ and $X'$ are isomorphic curves over $K$, the set of bad primes may not be the same. Am I right or am I confused with some part of the definition of the primes of bad reduction?
One further question is, let us say that $X/K$ be as before and $S$ the set of primes of bad reduction (well, I am implicitly assuming that $X$ is smooth). With this setting, I may be able to say that there exists a smooth $S$-integral model $\mathcal{X}$ of $X$. Then my second quesiton is
Let $\mathcal{X}'$ be another smooth $S$-integral model of $X$. What can we say difference of $\mathcal{X}$ and $\mathcal{X}'$? For example, can we say that $\mathcal{X}$ is isomorphic to $\mathcal{X'}$ up to extending $S$?