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Jun 19, 2012 at 14:37 comment added Igor Rivin @Denis: I am reading what the OP wrote: $p(r)$ goes to $0$ as $r\rightarrow \infty,$ as invertible matrices are dense in the set of all matrices. Now, this does not actually make sense as written, but I take it to mean that (s)he he is using $p(r)$ to refers to the proportion of non-invertible matrices, hence my interpretation. In any case, my original answer together with the addition answers both questions.
Jun 19, 2012 at 6:39 comment added Denis Serre @Igor. How do you know the exact content of the OP ? I personally interpret it as the asymptotics of those integer matrices such that $\det M=\pm1$, rather than $\det M\ne0$. The latter situation is not that appealing.
Jun 19, 2012 at 3:49 history edited Igor Rivin CC BY-SA 3.0
added many references
Jun 18, 2012 at 18:54 history answered Igor Rivin CC BY-SA 3.0