Skip to main content
6 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Nov 22, 2023 at 10:37 answer added Aleksander Leraand timeline score: 0
Jun 13, 2012 at 9:49 vote accept fds
Jun 12, 2012 at 15:59 comment added fds $X$ is projective; I consider the same setting and notation as in the book of Lazarsfeld. A divisor is pseudoeffective if its numerical class is a limit of effective classes in $N^1(X)_{\mathbb R}$.
Jun 12, 2012 at 15:44 comment added Jason Starr What are you assuming about $X$: is it proper, resp. projective? Also, are you working with numerical equivalence classes of Cartier divisors (or perhaps the associated real vector space)?
Jun 12, 2012 at 15:32 answer added Michael Joyce timeline score: 6
Jun 12, 2012 at 15:00 history asked fds CC BY-SA 3.0