Timeline for Generalization of an inequality due to Gage for curve shortening Part II
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
5 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jun 7, 2012 at 20:19 | comment | added | Sergei Ivanov | Sorry, I misread the question. But the example works anyway. I edited the answer so that it answers the correct question. | |
| Jun 7, 2012 at 20:17 | history | edited | Sergei Ivanov | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
make the example answer the actual question
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| Jun 7, 2012 at 10:18 | comment | added | Dorian | By improves, is a strictly weaker inequality. Sorry. | |
| Jun 7, 2012 at 9:55 | comment | added | Dorian |
Thank you for this interesting example, but if $C(L,A) > 0$ this improves the inequality no? If you see the last term that I added in my calculation, the term $\int_0^{2\pi} [p^*(\theta)-p(\theta)][(r^*)^2(\theta)-r(\theta)] d\theta$, this term indeed is controlled by $C(A^*-A)$ where $C>0$. Thus your example shows that what I want is certainly false for $C(L,A)=0$ but the question remains if adding such a term compensates.
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| Jun 7, 2012 at 9:47 | history | answered | Sergei Ivanov | CC BY-SA 3.0 |