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Nov 12, 2020 at 9:06 comment added seralouk What if I have a vector of length n with elements 1/n. What's the notation then?
Nov 3, 2019 at 6:39 comment added user76284 @ThomasDybdahlAhle $n \times \{1\}$ gives you the vector of all 1s directly, if you interpret $n$ as an ordinal.
Jan 24, 2019 at 12:53 comment added Martin Sleziak On Mathematics: Vector notation of all entries 1.
Oct 6, 2015 at 12:21 comment added Thomas Dybdahl Ahle For vectors of specific length, you might use that $\{1\}^n$ is the set with one tupple $(1,\dots,1)$ of length $n$. For the vector itself, I'm considering using $\langle1\rangle^n$.
May 18, 2015 at 18:46 comment added LSpice @EthanAlvaree, I think that physicists are used to $\mathbf i$ and $\mathbf j$ to mean unit vectors in the positive $x$- and $y$-directions.
Apr 24, 2015 at 5:41 history closed Lucia
Emil Jeřábek
Joonas Ilmavirta
Alex Degtyarev
Dima Pasechnik
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Apr 24, 2015 at 3:01 review Close votes
Apr 24, 2015 at 5:41
Apr 15, 2015 at 21:55 review Close votes
Apr 16, 2015 at 1:22
Oct 15, 2014 at 3:16 comment added EthanAlvaree I have also seen $\mathbf{\iota}$ (boldface iota) denote a column of ones. More often seen, I think, are $\mathbf{i}$ and $\mathbf{j}$. Personally, though, I hope $\mathbf{1}$ catches on.
Dec 28, 2009 at 22:06 comment added Jonas Meyer Kevin, Bkkbrad already wrote that above. (I'm being pedantic again.)
Dec 28, 2009 at 16:33 answer added Scott Carter timeline score: 6
Dec 28, 2009 at 10:41 comment added Kevin H. Lin There sure are a lot of (pedantic, I would say) comments regarding the choice of basis. Since this seems to be in a graph theory context, perhaps the vector is being used to denote some sort of incidence information. In that case, we do have a preferred basis: that corresponding to the vertices of the graph, perhaps.
Dec 28, 2009 at 0:55 answer added Ilya Nikokoshev timeline score: 1
Dec 28, 2009 at 0:00 answer added Douglas S. Stones timeline score: 2
Dec 27, 2009 at 23:23 comment added Harry Gindi Precisely my point.
Dec 27, 2009 at 23:19 vote accept Bkkbrad
Dec 27, 2009 at 23:17 comment added Mariano Suárez-Álvarez @Harry: a vector space is not a product of fields unless you fix a basis, and when you do both meanings of 1 denote the same element.
Dec 27, 2009 at 22:42 answer added Mariano Suárez-Álvarez timeline score: 13
Dec 27, 2009 at 21:52 comment added Jonas Meyer Harry's last comment is why I think the arrow on top is a good thing. Nobody writes an arrow over the identity of a ring, I hope.
Dec 27, 2009 at 21:46 comment added Harry Gindi The "all ones vector" has no meaning without choosing a basis, of course, because there's no canonical choice of a "1" vector. However, if you view your vector space as a direct product of fields, you can use the notation 1, since this element is the unit of the ring. It is terribly misleading, however, to use the notation 1 if you don't care about the ring structure.
Dec 27, 2009 at 21:41 comment added Bkkbrad @Jonas: Absolutely right; the specific vector space I refer to in my paper has a natural correspondence between basis vectors and indexed vertices of a finite graph.
Dec 27, 2009 at 21:38 answer added Chris Godsil timeline score: 6
Dec 27, 2009 at 21:35 comment added Greg Kuperberg I think the question is fine.
Dec 27, 2009 at 21:34 answer added Greg Kuperberg timeline score: 30
Dec 27, 2009 at 21:33 comment added Harry Gindi This question should be closed for being too localized.
Dec 27, 2009 at 21:31 answer added Anton Petrunin timeline score: 5
Dec 27, 2009 at 21:29 comment added Jonas Meyer "standard basis vector of a given vector space" To nitpick language: A "given" vector space need not have a standard basis. What you probably mean is that a basis for your vector space is fixed, or you are just considering the standard basis of $k^n$. The zero vector is different, because it is all zeros regardless of basis. However, I don't see anything wrong with your notation for all 1's so long as the basis is understood. If it doesn't seem too cumbersome and you want to be careful, you could write $\sum_{k=1}^n e_k$ if your basis is $e_1,\ldots,e_n$.
Dec 27, 2009 at 21:26 comment added Qiaochu Yuan I've seen it written as 1, but I agree it's a little confusing to read.
Dec 27, 2009 at 21:14 history asked Bkkbrad CC BY-SA 2.5