Q1: No.

Suppose there were such a subgroup. Then there would certainly be a $K$ such that $G/K$ is $\mathbb Z$. $K$ would have to contain the commutator subgroup. The quotient of $G$ by the commutator subgroup is the idele class group, which in this case is $\prod_L \mathbb Z_l^{\times}$. Thus there must be a nontrivial map from some $\mathbb Z_l^{\times}$ to $\mathbb Z$. $\mathbb Z_l^{\times}$ has a finite index subgroup isomorphic to $\mathbb Z_l^{+}$, which must also has a nontrivial map to $\mathbb Z$. But $\mathbb Z_l^{+}$ is a $p$-divisible group for any $p\neq l$, and thus has no nontrivial maps to $\mathbb Z$.

Q2: I don't know. It seems unlikely.

Q1: No.

Suppose there were such a subgroup. Then there would certainly be a $K$ such that $G/K$ is $\mathbb Z$. $K$ would have to contain the commutator subgroup. The quotient of $G$ by the commutator subgroup is the idele class group, which in this case is $\prod_L \mathbb Z_l^{\times}$. (EDIT: This might not be true. There are better arguments in the comments.) Thus there must be a nontrivial map from some $\mathbb Z_l^{\times}$ to $\mathbb Z$. $\mathbb Z_l^{\times}$ has a finite index subgroup isomorphic to $\mathbb Z_l^{+}$, which must also has a nontrivial map to $\mathbb Z$. But $\mathbb Z_l^{+}$ is a $p$-divisible group for any $p\neq l$, and thus has no nontrivial maps to $\mathbb Z$.

Q2: I don't know. It seems unlikely.