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Jun 6, 2012 at 10:22 history edited Brendan McKay CC BY-SA 3.0
note another formulation
Jun 6, 2012 at 2:18 answer added Gjergji Zaimi timeline score: 6
Jun 5, 2012 at 11:44 comment added Gjergji Zaimi Regarding your edit: there is a counterexample to your property for such polynomials with only two nonzero $h_i$'s. However in the case of the Birkhoff polytope, we have the additional property that $h_i$ and $h_{d-i}$ are equal, as well as that $h_i$ is unimodal. This is still not enough to conclude log-concavity of $M$ but perhaps it can prove your inequality?
Jun 5, 2012 at 8:42 answer added Pietro Majer timeline score: 3
Jun 5, 2012 at 2:25 history edited Brendan McKay CC BY-SA 3.0
oops
Jun 4, 2012 at 18:24 answer added David E Speyer timeline score: 17
Jun 4, 2012 at 18:07 comment added Greg Martin Perhaps a silly comment, but you are trying to prove the inequality $|M(n,k-n)| \cdot|M(n,k+1)| \le |M(n,k)| \cdot|M(n,k+1-n)|$; there might be a combinatorial proof - an injection from $M(n,k-n) \times M(n,k+1)$ into $M(n,k) \times M(n,k+1-n)$....
Jun 4, 2012 at 16:02 comment added Gerhard Paseman My "first unsolved problem" involved a setup similar to yours. One approach I did not try which might work here is to turn the relation P(n,k) < P(n,k+1) into a statement that a certain 2x2 integer determinant is nonnegative. Ira Gessel might have some suggestions as to how to approach the problem frrom that direction. Gerhard "8f It Works, Tell Someone" Paseman, 2012.06.04
Jun 4, 2012 at 15:41 comment added Brendan McKay @Douglas: For fixed $n$, $|M(n,k)|$ is a polynomial in $k$ of degree $(n-1)^2$. It's called the Ehrhart polynomial of the Birkhoff polytope. See math.binghamton.edu/dennis/Birkhoff for a paper on it and the explicit polynomial for $n\le 9$.
Jun 4, 2012 at 10:50 comment added Douglas Zare What is known about $|M(n,k)|$ for fixed $n$? It looks like log-concavity would imply the inequality you want.
Jun 3, 2012 at 23:25 history edited Brendan McKay CC BY-SA 3.0
note polytope version of problem
Jun 3, 2012 at 23:24 comment added Brendan McKay @Gerhard: That's one of the reasons I think the result is surely true, but can you turn it into a quantitative argument? The number of ways to write a matrix that way varies a great deal between matrices so you don't get a random matrix by adding together random permutation matrices. It is plausible that the relationship between $M(n,k)$ and $M(n,k+1)$ defined by having a difference which is a permutation matrix can be analyzed enough to give it.
Jun 3, 2012 at 21:10 answer added Vidit Nanda timeline score: 2
Jun 3, 2012 at 16:29 comment added Gerhard Paseman Can't you use something like an element of M(n,k) is the sum of k permutation matrices to get your desired result for k>n? Gerhard "Ask Me About System Design" Paseman, 2012.06.03
Jun 3, 2012 at 15:23 comment added cardinal I can prove it for $n=1$.
Jun 3, 2012 at 10:52 history asked Brendan McKay CC BY-SA 3.0