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Jun 4, 2012 at 19:46 vote accept James Miller
Jun 3, 2012 at 5:44 comment added James Miller If you consider only the mappings $\Pi \rightarrow \mathbb{Z}$ with finite support, then the two definitions of group ring ought to coincide.
Jun 3, 2012 at 5:11 answer added Andrew Ranicki timeline score: 3
Jun 3, 2012 at 5:02 comment added Tom Church Incidentally, it seems you are confusing the group ring $\mathbb{Z}\Pi$ (the group of formal linear combinations of elements of $\Pi$) with its dual (the group of functions from $\Pi$ to $\mathbb{Z}$). For a finite group like $\Pi=\mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}$ there is not a huge difference, but for infinite groups the distinction is very important. For example, if $\Pi$ is countably infinite, the group ring $\mathbb{Z}\Pi$ will be countably infinite, while its dual is uncountable!
Jun 3, 2012 at 3:37 history edited James Miller CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 3, 2012 at 3:35 comment added Sean Tilson so you need to define a chain map by specifying its values on each $e_i$. Use the fact that is a chain map so you know... this should help. Also, this question is more appropriate for math.stackexchange.com
Jun 3, 2012 at 2:37 history edited James Miller CC BY-SA 3.0
added 26 characters in body; edited title
Jun 3, 2012 at 2:20 history asked James Miller CC BY-SA 3.0