Skip to main content
3 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Jun 2, 2012 at 4:40 comment added Kaveh @Sune, I don't see how 1 is a special case of 2. 2 doesn't seem to imply one. (Do you have a proof or is it just some intuition?)
Jun 1, 2012 at 6:32 comment added Sune Jakobsen But conjecture 1 is a special case of 2. If NP!=P implies conjecture 2, then both conjectures and NP!=P are all equivalent. I doubt that.
May 31, 2012 at 7:18 history answered Kaveh CC BY-SA 3.0