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May 23, 2012 at 20:24 vote accept expmat
May 23, 2012 at 16:17 comment added Noam D. Elkies For $g=1$ [or even $g=0$] a counterexample is $f = -(x^4+1)$ [or $f = -(x^2+1)$] over ${\bf R}$, or over any field contained in ${\bf R}$ such as ${\bf Q}$. The involution is no longer intrinsic, but there are no rational points, whereas a model with $\deg(f) = 2g+1$ would have a rational point at infinity.
May 23, 2012 at 15:29 history answered David E Speyer CC BY-SA 3.0