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May 23, 2012 at 21:50 vote accept Hugo Chapdelaine
May 23, 2012 at 21:50 comment added Hugo Chapdelaine Dear anonymous, thanks for the clarifications. Indeed, this question involved too much wishful thinking!
May 23, 2012 at 2:02 history edited user631 CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 21, 2012 at 13:24 comment added Hugo Chapdelaine Of course if one projects $V_3$ on $V_2$ or if one tries to embed $V_2$ in $V_3$ then these maps won't be holomorphic since $V_3$ (which is of real dimension $5$) does not even support a complex structure.
May 21, 2012 at 12:01 comment added Hugo Chapdelaine Dear anonymous, in the case of $SL_n$ the symmetric space is $V_n=\{A\in M_{n x n}(\mathbf{R}): A=A^t, A>0, det(A)=1\}$. So this is a space of real dimension $n(n+1)/2-1$. So are you saying that there won't be a way of projecting $V_3$ to $V_2$ that would allow us to relate $f(q)$ to an automorphic form on $V_3$?
May 21, 2012 at 7:02 history answered user631 CC BY-SA 3.0