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Apr 15, 2021 at 22:02 comment added Alessandro Della Corte A nice realization of a counterexample can be the relation: "to love someone". In an ideal world, symmetry and transitivity of this relation should hold. But everyone knows that you can't really love yourself if no one loves you...
Mar 31, 2020 at 19:45 comment added Dan Petersen @trisct It is a fallacy since $H=\varnothing$ is closed under multiplication and inverses, but is not a subgroup; in this case the first step "take any $x \in H$" fails.
Dec 27, 2019 at 5:14 comment added trisct @DanPetersen Interesting. How is this a fallacy?
Jan 10, 2019 at 17:10 comment added Dan Petersen A very similar fallacy: a subset $H$ of a group $G$ is a subgroup if it contains the unit, is closed under multiplication, and is closed under inverses. CLAIM: the second and third condition imply the first. Indeed, take any $x\in H$. Then $x^{-1}$ is also in $H$, so $xx^{-1}=e$ is in $H$.
Mar 20, 2013 at 20:33 comment added Paul Levy As Davidac says you only need that for any $x$ there exists at least one $y$ such that $x \sim y$. I set this as a homework question for my undergraduate groups course every year and the answers systematically ignore the necessary assumption
Mar 20, 2013 at 18:02 comment added David Corwin But this proves the result if there is at least one equivalence?
May 19, 2012 at 18:06 history answered John Engbers CC BY-SA 3.0