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May 18, 2012 at 13:44 comment added Liviu Nicolaescu @ Deane This means that for any $p\in M$ and for any $2$-plane $\pi\subset T_pM$ the scalar $K^0(\pi)$ is the sectional curvature of $g$ along $\pi$.
May 16, 2012 at 8:08 comment added Deane Yang Also, what exactly do you mean by the statement "$K^0$ is the sectional curvature of $g$"?
May 16, 2012 at 8:05 comment added Deane Yang You're absolutely right, and Anton Petrunin has a much better answer to your question.
May 16, 2012 at 1:58 answer added Anton Petrunin timeline score: 6
May 16, 2012 at 0:10 comment added Liviu Nicolaescu I have looked at the paper you mentioned. That paper uses only the assumption that $K^\varepsilon$ is uniformly bounded. In my case $K^\varepsilon$ is convergent to a smooth limit. The question is weather this limit is indeed the curvature of the limiting metric $g$ which we know is smooth.
May 15, 2012 at 22:41 comment added Deane Yang Have you looked at the paper by Stefan Peters, "Convergence of riemannian manifolds", Compositio Math 62 (1987) 3-16? You can't conclude that the limiting sectional curvature is continuous but it is bounded almost everywhere.
May 15, 2012 at 22:19 history edited Liviu Nicolaescu CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 15, 2012 at 22:14 comment added Liviu Nicolaescu It's a bit better than the uniform convergence mentioned in my question. let me edit the question.
May 15, 2012 at 20:46 comment added Deane Yang I just want to confirm that the sectional curvature converges only for co-ordinate 2-planes and not for other 2-planes? Others can answer your question better than me, but my experience has been that controlling the sectional curvature only along co-ordinate 2-planes (for a fixed set of co-ordinates) is not enough.
May 15, 2012 at 20:04 history asked Liviu Nicolaescu CC BY-SA 3.0