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May 23, 2018 at 22:29 comment added Ali Taghavi @Denis In the following post I considered another kind of "preserving", that is invariant under derivation operator(instead of composition).Do you have some extra ideas,(aside of existing answer) on this question?Can I ask you to give some comment on this question? mathoverflow.net/questions/162598/…
May 15, 2012 at 8:50 history edited Denis Serre CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 15, 2012 at 5:11 history edited Denis Serre CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 15, 2012 at 1:58 comment added curious ah yes my bad. Thank you for straighting me out, my example was indeed nonsense. Let me check if inversion preserves harmonicity... any other examples? or is it an exhaustive list?
May 15, 2012 at 1:03 comment added Thomas Klimpel The comment above contains frustratingly many typos (wrong parenthesis in the expression for $\Delta (u \circ \psi)$, $x\mapsto 1/||x||^n$ instead of $x\mapsto x/||x||^n$), but the message should be clear nevertheless.
May 15, 2012 at 0:58 comment added Thomas Klimpel @curious Note that $\Delta(u\circ \psi)=|f'|^2((\partial_1^2+\partial_2^2)u+\partial_3^2 u)\circ \psi$, which is not proportional to $(\Delta u)\circ \psi$ if $|f'|^2\neq 1$ and $\partial_3^2u\neq 0$. So Denis Serre is right that your "examples" usually don't work. However, I looked up the theorem due to Liouville in my copy of Marcel Berger's "Géométrie 1", and certain inversions also seem to preserve harmonicity. I guess they are $x \mapsto 1/||x||^n$, but I would have to check. Of course, these inversions are not defined everywhere in $\mathbb R^3$, so the remark is only misleading.
May 14, 2012 at 16:27 history answered Denis Serre CC BY-SA 3.0