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S Sep 22, 2020 at 12:28 history suggested user11333 CC BY-SA 4.0
some changes with tex
Sep 22, 2020 at 11:24 review Suggested edits
S Sep 22, 2020 at 12:28
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Oct 22, 2009 at 22:35 comment added Ilya Nikokoshev It's some computation I think. Perhaps Hilbert 90?
Oct 18, 2009 at 20:49 answer added Jonah Sinick timeline score: 1
Oct 18, 2009 at 14:19 vote accept Ben Webster
Oct 18, 2009 at 7:20 answer added Joel Dodge timeline score: 3
Oct 18, 2009 at 4:32 answer added user631 timeline score: 14
Oct 18, 2009 at 4:00 comment added Akhil Mathew Oops, I realize I wasn't clear earlier: Each character of G is an integral combination of characters induced from 1-dimensional subgroups. One reduces by the previous comment to the case of 1-dimensional representations, which is clear.
Oct 18, 2009 at 3:31 comment added Akhil Mathew Ben- if a character of a representation V is an integral linear combination of characters of representations definable over a field k, then V is definable over k (Prop. 33 on p.91, Linear Representations of Finite Groups by Serre). This seems to be how Serre proves the result in question (p.94, Corollary).
Oct 18, 2009 at 3:02 comment added Ben Webster Akhil- This isn't something you can prove just studying the characters. You have to think about the representations themselves.
Oct 18, 2009 at 3:00 history edited Ben Webster CC BY-SA 2.5
added 241 characters in body; added 1 characters in body
Oct 18, 2009 at 2:14 comment added Akhil Mathew I believe this is a consequence of Brauer's theorem: this is true for 1-dimensional representations, and every representation's character is an integral linear combination of characters of 1-dimensional representations (by Brauer's theorem and the theorem on representations of supersolvable groups).
Oct 18, 2009 at 1:51 comment added Ben Webster My recollection is it's not super easy. You can see the characters are in a cyclotomic extension by noting that all the eigenvalues of a matrix of finite order are roots of unity, but your representation doesn't have to be defined over the field gotten by adjoining character values.
Oct 18, 2009 at 1:49 answer added Andreas Holmstrom timeline score: 1
Oct 18, 2009 at 1:29 answer added David Zureick-Brown timeline score: 2
Oct 18, 2009 at 1:24 comment added Qiaochu Yuan It's still not obvious to me (although I believe it) why all representations of finite groups are defined over cyclotomic fields. Could you sketch that argument?
Oct 18, 2009 at 1:04 history asked Ben Webster CC BY-SA 2.5