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May 11, 2012 at 21:15 comment added Maarten Derickx Now $E(\Gamma(3))/\mathbb{P}^1$ doesn't have a section of infinite order. But by choosing a suitable line $L \in \P^2$ to parameterize the elliptic elliptic curves in the Hesse pensil by one can find a different elliptic curve $E \to \P^1$ wich has a section of infite order, and this $E$ will also be birational equivalent to $\P^2$. Now the translation by this point of infinite order is an isomorphism from $E$ to itself and hence gives a birational map from $\P^2$ to itself. This birational automorphism will be the translation by a point of infinite order in most of its fibers over $L$.
May 11, 2012 at 21:02 comment added Maarten Derickx Yesterday during lunch at Univeriteit Leiden I also heard another argument (by bas Edixhoven) why the "negative result for elliptic curves" argument cannot work in the birational case. The argument is by considering the Hesse pencil $u(x3+y3+z3)+vxyz$ . Now by blowing up in the 9 points where rational map $\mathbb{P}^2 \to \mathbb{P}^1$ given by $(x:y:z)\mapsto(x^3+y^3+z^3:xyz)$ is not defined we get $E(\Gamma(3))\mapsto \mathbb{P}^2$. $E(\Gamma(3))$ together with the map to $\mathbb{P}^1$ (via $\mathbb{P}^2$) will be the universal elliptic curve with full level 3 structure.
May 7, 2012 at 15:15 history edited Karl Schwede CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 7, 2012 at 9:38 comment added Maarten Derickx Thanks for the answer. Altough it was not the answer to my question it stil was instructive.
May 7, 2012 at 6:11 comment added François Brunault Isn't it the case that any point on a cubic curve can be made into an inflection point using a birational transformation ? There is an algorithm due to Nagell to transform any cubic curve into Weierstrass form, but I don't know whether this applies here.
May 7, 2012 at 1:34 history edited Karl Schwede CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 7, 2012 at 1:02 history edited Karl Schwede CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 7, 2012 at 0:41 history edited Karl Schwede CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 6, 2012 at 23:52 comment added R.P. Re your counter-example: Maarten's $F$ was allowed to be a birational automorphism. Hence $L$ is not necessarily mapped to a line, I guess.
May 6, 2012 at 23:19 history edited Karl Schwede CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 6, 2012 at 23:08 history answered Karl Schwede CC BY-SA 3.0