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Oct 12, 2021 at 19:02 history edited Martin Sleziak CC BY-SA 4.0
a minor typo
Apr 10, 2013 at 12:54 history edited Andrej Bauer CC BY-SA 3.0
added 72 characters in body
Dec 22, 2009 at 1:48 comment added Joel David Hamkins Indeed, the Computable IVT as I stated it is equivalent to (a), and this is what Weirich proves (and what the questioner seems to have asked). A major goal of computable analysis is to undertand the computable reals as a mathematical structure, using classical logic, and it is statement (a) that implies, for example, that the computable reals are a real-closed field. (See Weirich Corollary 6.3.10.) Statement (b), in contrast, requires a uniform algorithm, which is a stronger notion. Such uniformity issues arise throughout compubility theory, both on the natural numbers and on the reals.
Dec 21, 2009 at 23:40 history answered Andrej Bauer CC BY-SA 2.5