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Dec 22, 2009 at 9:37 comment added Georges Elencwajg Francisco, this is not true if k is not perfect. Take for k a field of characteristic p and let a be an element in some overfield such that a is not in k but a^p is in k. Then if A=B=k[a]=k(a), the k-algebra A \otimes B has the non-zero element (a \otimes 1 - 1 \otimes a) whose p-th power is zero.Hence the tensor product of A and B is NOT reduced. Shafarevich states explicitly that k is algebraically closed at the beginning of the paragraph you quote.
Dec 22, 2009 at 8:20 comment added darij grinberg I don't know what an affine closed set is when $k$ is not algebraically closed.
Dec 21, 2009 at 22:44 history answered Hideyuki Kabayakawa CC BY-SA 2.5