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Nov 15, 2013 at 22:46 comment added AatG Ah, yes, carry on, good sir :)
Nov 14, 2013 at 21:38 comment added George Lowther The first inequality is just taking expectations of $1_{\{\sum a_iX_i^2\le\epsilon\}}\le e^{\lambda(\epsilon-\sum a_iX_i^2)}$.
Nov 14, 2013 at 19:44 comment added AatG I don't think this (proof, if not the result) is correct. The first inequality in this proof looks like an incorrect application of Markov's inequality.
Apr 25, 2012 at 3:30 vote accept Mitch
Apr 25, 2012 at 2:33 history edited George Lowther CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 25, 2012 at 2:15 history answered George Lowther CC BY-SA 3.0