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Jan 20, 2023 at 1:57 comment added dohmatob See another answer which has optimal dependence on the $a_i$'s mathoverflow.net/a/438937/78539. Basically, you can take $c=r(a)/2$, where $r(a):=\|a\|_1/\|a\|_\infty \ge 1$ with $a=(a_1,\ldots,a_n)$. Note that this choice of $c$ can be much larger than $1/2$, as can be seen when $a_i = 1/n$ for all $i$; here one easily computes $r(a) = n$, and so $c=n/2 = \Omega(n) \gg 1$ for large $n$.
Jan 20, 2023 at 1:27 answer added dohmatob timeline score: 1
Aug 16, 2020 at 7:55 comment added dohmatob Using Chernoff's inequality, you can get the result in one line. See my post below.
Aug 16, 2020 at 7:54 answer added dohmatob timeline score: 1
Apr 25, 2012 at 3:30 vote accept Mitch
Apr 25, 2012 at 2:15 answer added George Lowther timeline score: 13
Apr 25, 2012 at 1:44 answer added Ryan O'Donnell timeline score: 4
Apr 25, 2012 at 1:12 comment added Mitch Yes, I would expect $c=1/2,$ but I don't want to discourage somebody with an answer that gives $c<1/2.$
Apr 25, 2012 at 1:07 comment added George Lowther Anyway, at first glance it looks like it should hold for $c=1/2$. Is that what you expect, or can you rule that case out? (certainly $c > 1/2$ is ruled out by looking at $n=1$).
Apr 25, 2012 at 0:59 history edited Mitch CC BY-SA 3.0
deleted 13 characters in body
Apr 25, 2012 at 0:56 comment added Mitch No, it's supposed to be an absolute constant independent of $a_1,\dots,a_n$ and $n$. I will update the question.
Apr 25, 2012 at 0:32 comment added George Lowther Does the implicit constant in $O(\epsilon^c)$ allowed to depend on $n$ and $a_1,\ldots,a_n$? I assume not, but the way it's stated makes it sound like it does to me.
Apr 25, 2012 at 0:17 history asked Mitch CC BY-SA 3.0