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Sep 5, 2022 at 8:59 comment added Emil Jeřábek The argument in Theorem 6.4 of arxiv.org/abs/2209.01197 does, in fact, give the axiom $E(x,y)\to x<y$.
Sep 5, 2022 at 8:21 history edited Emil Jeřábek CC BY-SA 4.0
added 534 characters in body
S Sep 24, 2013 at 5:54 history suggested CommunityBot CC BY-SA 3.0
Replaced three instances of double-backslash-comma with single-backslash-comma, to fix rendering
Sep 24, 2013 at 5:15 review Suggested edits
S Sep 24, 2013 at 5:54
Apr 24, 2012 at 9:30 comment added Emil Jeřábek I realized the argument does not really give the axiom (7) $E(x,y)\to x< y$. While I am confident that the zig-zag construction of the isomorphism $f$ can be modified to yield $f(x)>\lfloor\log_2x\rfloor$ which guarantees (7), the proof gets messy, so I just deleted the axiom from the answer.
Apr 24, 2012 at 9:27 history edited Emil Jeřábek CC BY-SA 3.0
remove too strong a claim
Apr 23, 2012 at 13:30 comment added M Carl Thanks for your answer. I was interested in the second variant, and after your first answer, I noticed that I should have added (5) in the original statement, so this extension is really interesting.
Apr 23, 2012 at 13:10 history edited Emil Jeřábek CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 23, 2012 at 12:40 vote accept M Carl
Apr 23, 2012 at 11:37 history answered Emil Jeřábek CC BY-SA 3.0