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May 23, 2020 at 17:55 comment added user20948 @HeinrichD It looks like a constructive proof of (1) is possible. Indeed, we can assume that $A,B$ are finitely generated over $k$, and then it might be possible to start with Gröbner basis.
Dec 14, 2016 at 17:57 history edited darij grinberg CC BY-SA 3.0
improve latex and add link
Sep 18, 2016 at 11:44 answer added HeinrichD timeline score: 6
Sep 18, 2016 at 8:12 comment added darij grinberg @HeinrichD: no. All I've learned from this thread is that commutative algebra is hard...
Sep 18, 2016 at 7:42 comment added HeinrichD @darij: Even if $A,B$ are fields, I don't see a constructive proof either. Almost all proofs in commutative algebra that I've learnt are terribly non-constructive. Regarding (2), have you found some counterexample?
Sep 16, 2016 at 19:20 comment added darij grinberg @HeinrichD: No, unfortunately.
Sep 16, 2016 at 19:02 comment added HeinrichD @darij: Have you meanwhile found a constructive proof of (1), avoiding the use of prime ideals?
Aug 18, 2012 at 10:15 history edited darij grinberg CC BY-SA 3.0
now that was some bullshit
Feb 25, 2010 at 22:54 history edited Charles Stewart
edited tags
Feb 25, 2010 at 15:33 answer added Qing Liu timeline score: 7
Dec 21, 2009 at 22:44 answer added Hideyuki Kabayakawa timeline score: 1
Dec 20, 2009 at 22:16 comment added darij grinberg Ah, okay. Maybe this can be rescued by restating the condition that $k$ be algebraically closed in terms of schemes, but anyway this is just a rewording of my question.
Dec 20, 2009 at 21:48 history edited Anton Geraschenko CC BY-SA 2.5
edited title; edited title
Dec 20, 2009 at 21:46 comment added Georges Elencwajg @darij : my comment was a counter-example to Mike's assertion " you're asking if the product of connected affine schemes is connected (which is true)" .
Dec 20, 2009 at 21:20 answer added Georges Elencwajg timeline score: 5
Dec 20, 2009 at 20:35 answer added user2035 timeline score: 10
Dec 20, 2009 at 20:03 comment added darij grinberg That's why I edited my above post to require $k$ to be algebraically closed (for (3)). Is it still wrong then?
Dec 20, 2009 at 19:50 comment added Georges Elencwajg It is NOT true that the product of two connected affine schemes is connected. For example the affine scheme X=Spec(Q(i)) is connected since it has only one point, but the product of X with itself is equal to the sum (=coproduct) of two copies of X. Topologically it is a discrete space with two ponts, hence not connected.
Dec 20, 2009 at 19:29 comment added darij grinberg I meant the assertion that the product of connected affine schemes is connected (I assume that you mean the fibred product, which is not a topological product - or am I mistaken here?). What you just showed is that the tensor product of rings corresponds to the fibred product of the corresponding affine schemes over the trivial scheme - but I know that.
Dec 20, 2009 at 19:25 comment added Mike Skirvin Since we're talking about affine schemes, my assertion above is equivalent to showing that the tensor product of two rings is a push-out in the category of commutative rings. So you just need to show that, given any ring $R$ and maps $A \to R$ and $B \to R$ which agree on $k$, this induces a map $A \otimes_k B \to R$ making the obvious diagram commute. This latter fact is a pretty straightforward exercise in ring theory.
Dec 20, 2009 at 19:08 comment added darij grinberg Thanks, but how do you prove this true fact?
Dec 20, 2009 at 19:08 history edited darij grinberg CC BY-SA 2.5
@(3): note to self: first think, then post; deleted 2 characters in body
Dec 20, 2009 at 19:04 comment added Mike Skirvin Tensor product of rings corresponds to pull-backs of affine schemes. So in question (3) you're asking if the product of connected affine schemes is connected (which is true).
Dec 20, 2009 at 19:02 history edited darij grinberg CC BY-SA 2.5
added 57 characters in body
Dec 20, 2009 at 18:55 history asked darij grinberg CC BY-SA 2.5