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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:19 history edited CommunityBot
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Dec 8, 2014 at 3:34 comment added Jesse Elliott OK. mathoverflow.net/questions/189165/…
Dec 8, 2014 at 2:17 comment added Joel David Hamkins @JesseElliott Good Question! That statement isn't provable in ZFC alone, since this would imply that there is a definable linear order of $V$, but it is consistent with ZFC that there is no definable linear order of the universe. But I don't see without further thought whether it implies V=HOD, and I'm inclined to think it doesn't, but I'd need to think more about it. Why not post a question?
Dec 8, 2014 at 2:06 comment added Jesse Elliott One point is confusing me about `coding' sets as sets of ordinals. Is there a definable bijection $No \longrightarrow V$ in ZFC, or is that, too, equivalent to $V = HOD$?
Dec 1, 2014 at 1:17 comment added Joel David Hamkins @JesseElliott My argument here is really only about the equinumerosity relation on those classes, and not about the algebraic structure. So I don't think that this answer actually has much bearing on your other question.
Dec 1, 2014 at 0:24 comment added Jesse Elliott I think your argument may settle a related question I posted recently, but I'm not sure. See mathoverflow.net/questions/188430/…
Apr 8, 2012 at 16:27 vote accept David Feldman
Apr 8, 2012 at 7:54 history edited Joel David Hamkins CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 8, 2012 at 7:49 history edited Joel David Hamkins CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 8, 2012 at 7:41 history answered Joel David Hamkins CC BY-SA 3.0