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Mar 29 at 7:48 answer added Ken timeline score: 0
Nov 2, 2015 at 16:22 answer added Aaron Mazel-Gee timeline score: 1
Apr 4, 2012 at 17:51 comment added Mike Shulman @Jeff: Ah, were you thinking of something like Chris' answer below?
Apr 4, 2012 at 16:03 answer added Chris Schommer-Pries timeline score: 10
Apr 4, 2012 at 7:12 comment added Mike Shulman @Jeff, that paper was also suggested in another answer that's since been deleted. Can you explain why knowing that N(C,W) is half of a Quillen equivalence also tells you that it is equivalent to the localization of C at W, without some sort of additional argument like the one Denis-Charles gave?
Apr 4, 2012 at 6:41 comment added Jeff Smith I think the result you need is in a paper of Barwick and Kan. They show that the functor N(C,W) is half of a Quillen equivalence.
Apr 3, 2012 at 21:50 vote accept Mike Shulman
Apr 2, 2012 at 23:53 answer added D.-C. Cisinski timeline score: 6
Apr 2, 2012 at 21:42 comment added Mike Shulman It seems unlikely to me that Hom(I,C) could model all $(\infty,1)$-functors $I\to L(C,W)$, since you haven't applied any fibrant replacement to $(C,W)$ to make the morphisms in $W$ into equivalences.
Apr 2, 2012 at 20:56 comment added Thomas Nikolaus I have been asking me this as well a while ago. I think for it is important to figure out to which extend for the given pair (C,W) and a small category I the functor category Hom(I,C) with the induced notion of weak equivalences models all maps of infinity categories $NI \to L(C,W)$. This is true for a properly behaved model category, but in general I have no idea.
Apr 2, 2012 at 18:05 history asked Mike Shulman CC BY-SA 3.0