Skip to main content
25 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Jun 27, 2018 at 19:45 comment added John Gowers 'In order to define composition of paths in the naive way': in fact, you can get away with saying that the composition $p_1;p_2\colon J \to X$ should exist for any paths $p_1,p_2\colon J\to X$ such that $p_1(e_1)=p_2(e_0)$ and that it should be natural in the sense that if $f\colon X \to Y$ is continuous then $(f\circ p_1);(f\circ p_2)=f\circ(p_1;p_2)$. Your continuous map then arises as the composition of the two obvious paths in $J\vee J$, and naturality tells us that every composition can be defined using this map.
S Apr 15, 2017 at 14:23 history suggested Ascenso
added fundamental group tag
Apr 15, 2017 at 14:04 review Suggested edits
S Apr 15, 2017 at 14:23
Aug 3, 2013 at 2:50 vote accept Daniel Miller
Mar 7, 2013 at 5:25 answer added Keith Penrod timeline score: 6
Mar 6, 2013 at 13:24 comment added Alexey Muranov I have just asked a related question about topological characterization of [0, 1]: mathoverflow.net/questions/123760
Sep 16, 2012 at 9:59 comment added o a There is a paper by Drinfeld (and related papers by A.Besser and D.Grayson) arxiv.org/abs/math/0304064 where he dwells on the notion of the interval..i quote: We reformulate the definitions so that the following facts become obvious: (i) geometric realization commutes with finite projective limits (e.g., with Cartesian products); (ii) the geometric realization of a simplicial set (resp. cyclic set) is equipped with an action of the group of orientation preserving homeomor- phisms of the segment I := [0, 1] (resp. the circle S1 )
May 3, 2012 at 10:27 comment added Ronnie Brown I'd just like to put in a plea for Dedecker, Paul and Valderrama, Jerko, Graphes et cographes sur une cat\'egorie abstraite. Application `a l'homotopie, C. R. Acad. Sci. Paris S\'er. A-B, 262, 1966, A377--A380, for an early discussion of an "interval object".
Mar 26, 2012 at 19:36 answer added Valerio Capraro timeline score: 4
Mar 26, 2012 at 17:29 comment added Mike Shulman Good point, Charles. The paper by Kennison that I mentioned in my answer also considers covering spaces as one way to define the fundamental group, and relates it to the Cech-style definition.
Mar 26, 2012 at 15:48 comment added Charles Rezk You don't need the unit interval at all to define the fundamental group, at least for "nice spaces, since then you can characterize the fundamental group(oid) of $X$ in terms of its covering spaces. Unfortunately, I don't know how to recognize when a space is "nice" (e.g., locally path connected and semi-locally simply connected) without using the unit interval.
Mar 26, 2012 at 14:50 answer added Karol Szumiło timeline score: 5
Mar 26, 2012 at 5:12 answer added Mike Shulman timeline score: 108
Mar 26, 2012 at 3:58 answer added Tom Leinster timeline score: 136
Mar 26, 2012 at 1:56 comment added Jonathan Beardsley The question supposes that fundamental groups were defined before the unit interval...
Mar 26, 2012 at 1:26 comment added David Roberts Arg, I took too long writing my answer, Benjamin Steinberg got the much shorter and punchier version out.
Mar 26, 2012 at 1:06 answer added David Roberts timeline score: 8
Mar 26, 2012 at 0:35 comment added Benjamin Steinberg I think really the circle is the correct object for defining the fundamental group. What is important is that it is a cogroup object in the category of pointed spaces if you allow coassociativity up to homotopy.
Mar 25, 2012 at 23:32 comment added Qiaochu Yuan ncatlab.org/nlab/show/interval+object
Mar 25, 2012 at 23:03 comment added Anton Petrunin I had a feeling that "right" definition of fundamental group should use pseudoarc instead of $[0,1]$. I am sure someone did it this way.
Mar 25, 2012 at 22:47 comment added Daniel Litt ncatlab.org/nlab/show/cylinder+object
Mar 25, 2012 at 22:43 history edited Daniel Miller CC BY-SA 3.0
added 90 characters in body
Mar 25, 2012 at 22:40 comment added Daniel Miller You're quite right. Edited to reflect the change.
Mar 25, 2012 at 22:32 comment added Tom Goodwillie To define multiplication of paths, you don't need a homeomorphism. You just need a map from $J$ to that quotient (taking $e_0$ and $e_1$ to the right things).
Mar 25, 2012 at 22:21 history asked Daniel Miller CC BY-SA 3.0