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May 18, 2020 at 14:37 comment added Gericault With this process the L1 norm of X is always $V_{n+1} - V_0 = 1$ so this simulates a random point on the $l_1$ sphere, not the ball
Dec 17, 2009 at 17:50 comment added Michael Lugo David, thanks for fixing the notation. Mitch, I'd love an answer for other p as well. It seems like a problem someone should have considered but quick searching isn't finding any answers other than the obvious one of picking a random point in the unit cube and throwing it out if it doesn't work, which for large n gets very bad.
Dec 17, 2009 at 17:48 comment added David E Speyer Fixed the braces. If you're curious how I did this, I'll put up a note on tea.mathoverflow.net
Dec 17, 2009 at 17:45 history edited David E Speyer CC BY-SA 2.5
added 4 characters in body
Dec 17, 2009 at 17:45 comment added Mitch Thanks for the reference. For $p=1$ this was what I thought, but I didn't have a reference. I'm still interested in p>2 though.
Dec 17, 2009 at 17:40 vote accept Mitch
Dec 17, 2009 at 22:17
Dec 17, 2009 at 17:37 comment added Michael Lugo C_n and S_N are of course sets; I can't figure out how to get the braces to show up.
Dec 17, 2009 at 17:35 history answered Michael Lugo CC BY-SA 2.5