Timeline for Does regularity of the boundary imply interior sphere condition
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
9 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| May 6, 2022 at 12:24 | answer | added | Guy Fsone | timeline score: 2 | |
| Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
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| Mar 22, 2016 at 22:23 | vote | accept | Beni Bogosel | ||
| Mar 20, 2012 at 16:45 | answer | added | Deane Yang | timeline score: 3 | |
| Mar 20, 2012 at 16:12 | answer | added | Malte | timeline score: 1 | |
| Mar 20, 2012 at 10:11 | comment | added | Pietro Majer | Also, $\Omega:=\{ y > x^2\log|x| \} $ has $C^1$ boundary, and for $h > 0$ the maximal $\rho$ such that $(0,h)\in B_\rho\subset \Omega$ is $o(1)$ as $h\to 0$. | |
| Mar 19, 2012 at 10:28 | history | edited | Beni Bogosel | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 159 characters in body
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| Mar 19, 2012 at 10:23 | comment | added | fedja | No. Consider the domain $y>x^2\sqrt{sin(1/x)^2+x^{100}}$ near 0 (in other words, make a sequence of "almost angles" flattened by some factor to ensure that you stay $C^1$ at the limiting point. | |
| Mar 19, 2012 at 10:04 | history | asked | Beni Bogosel | CC BY-SA 3.0 |