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Mar 19, 2012 at 17:34 comment added James Propp I'm afraid I still don't get it. Philip writes: "since the properties of sin, cos are the same for real as for surreal numbers, one would simply write that (x+iy) with x, y in [-1,1] and x^2+y^2=1 is mapped to theta where there is a unique theta such that cos(theta)=x, sin(theta)=y". But why are the properties of sin and cos the same for real as for surreal numbers? If there is a transfer principle at work here, I'd like to see a clear statement of it.
Mar 18, 2012 at 14:28 history answered Philip Ehrlich CC BY-SA 3.0