Skip to main content
12 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Mar 14, 2012 at 19:07 comment added Will Sawin A better example than Goldbach is Twin Primes. There could be finitely many twin primes and a proof that there are infinitely many without contradiction, or infinitely many twin primes and a proof that there are finitely many without contradiction. Of course, the proofs couldn't be constructive, but a non-constructive proof is entirely possible.
Mar 14, 2012 at 18:53 comment added Yaakov Baruch I think the comment stream to the answer below is relevant to this discussion: mathoverflow.net/questions/28806/… especially the final comments by Joel David Hamkins and Carl Mummert
Mar 14, 2012 at 12:10 comment added Not Mike Goldbach's conjecture? Seriously? If there is a counter-example, then it exists for reasons beyond coding. And will in no way be independent. Not even close.
Mar 14, 2012 at 11:37 comment added user13113 In ZFC+~GC, there is a finite counterexample.
Mar 14, 2012 at 4:05 comment added Steven Gubkin If GC is independent of ZFC then there is no finite counterexample to ZFC (if you can produce a counterexample, that counterexample can be checked in ZFC). If there is no finite counterexample, GC is true.
Mar 14, 2012 at 3:35 comment added user13113 In fact, isn't it true that ZFC+~GC can prove ~GC provable by PA?
Mar 14, 2012 at 3:28 comment added user13113 @Steven: To give an example of a differing opinion, I would consider that argument a type-error. If GC is unprovable in ZFC, that means GC is true in certain models of PA (as constructed in certain models of ZFC) -- to say GC is true in an absolute sense goes too far.
Mar 13, 2012 at 21:44 comment added Will Sawin Depends on who you ask. If you ask someone who agrees with all the axioms of ZF + determinacy + Con(ZFC), then he will say "Yes, of course. ZFC proves that there exist non-measurable sets. But, much like even numbers not the sum of two primes, it provides no procedure to produce such a set, and indeed, no such sets exist! Therefore, ZFC is false. But it's still consistent, as there is no proof in ZFC of this obvious falsehood."
Mar 13, 2012 at 14:27 vote accept Steven Gubkin
Mar 13, 2012 at 14:27 comment added Steven Gubkin Is it still possible that our means of encoding the natural numbers into ZFC allows proofs of some false theorems? I mean say goldbach conjecture turns out to be unprovable in ZFC. Then GC is true, and ZFC + (~GC) is consistent. So ZFC + (~GC) proves a false theorem about the natural numbers. Is it possible that there are some false theorems lurking in ZFC alone, even given its consistency?
Mar 13, 2012 at 14:23 comment added Steven Gubkin Great! So these kinds of type differences will never butt head with each other so much that you end up producing false theorems.
Mar 13, 2012 at 5:57 history answered Andrej Bauer CC BY-SA 3.0