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Mar 11, 2012 at 16:36 vote accept Nikita Kalinin
Mar 9, 2012 at 20:09 comment added Mariano Suárez-Álvarez @Will, the cohomology is not that of $\mathbb P^3$, though, no?
Mar 9, 2012 at 19:28 comment added Will Sawin You can chance coordinates to $a=x_0+ix_1$, $b=x_0-ix_1$, $c=x_2+ix_3$< $d=x_2-ix_3$ to get the equation $ab+cd+x_4^2=0$, which shows that the surface is birational to $\mathb P^3$. I don't know enough about 3-folds to tell if this all implies it is isomorphic to $\mathbb P^3$.
Mar 9, 2012 at 17:37 comment added Johannes Nordström The hyperplane theorem follows from the fact that the complement of the variety in $\mathbb{C}P^n$ is homotopy equivalent to a cell complex whose (real) dimension is $n$. In this case, one can see explicitly that the complement deformation retracts to $\mathbb{R}P^3$, and deduce that $b_3(V) = 0$.
Mar 9, 2012 at 17:28 history answered David E Speyer CC BY-SA 3.0