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Mar 8, 2012 at 22:02 vote accept nil
Mar 8, 2012 at 17:45 history edited Anthony Quas CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 8, 2012 at 17:45 comment added Anthony Quas Same argument. Just split up $\mathbb R^d$ into cubes of diameter less than $\epsilon$. There are still countably many cubes so there's a way to number them 1,2,3,4,\ldots.
Mar 8, 2012 at 16:11 comment added nil Sorry for the confusion, but in 2), I wanted to say $\mathbb{R}^d$, a d-dimensional random variable, not $\mathbb{R}^n$.
Mar 8, 2012 at 15:42 comment added nil Thank you very much for the reply. I have two more concerns about generalising this proof however. 1) If we make $\epsilon\to 0$, (i.e. change the $\sum_k$ to integral), does this still hold due to monotone convergence theorem? (I didn't get to learn real analysis quite well as an engineering student.) 2) If we take $X$ to be a multivariate random variable on $\mathbb{R}^n$, we need then generalise the intervals to $\epsilon$ balls. Does the proof need some kind of covering theorem (I'm guessing) to support it?
Mar 8, 2012 at 5:40 history answered Anthony Quas CC BY-SA 3.0