Timeline for Uniqueness of equilibrium from infinite strategies
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
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| Mar 7, 2012 at 16:36 | comment | added | Eric | Thank you for reminding. Yes it's Definition 1 --- otherwise there's no need for the requirement "uniform distribution on [0,1]". But while varying ranges of equilibrium $f_A$ and $f_B$ on measure zero sets trivially leads you to a different equilibrium by the definition, is a more essential change possible? | |
| Mar 7, 2012 at 15:36 | history | answered | Steven Landsburg | CC BY-SA 3.0 |