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Mar 4, 2012 at 19:10 vote accept macbeth
Mar 4, 2012 at 19:10 comment added macbeth Thanks, nice reference! [Summary: there exists a symplectomorphism between surfaces $(M_1,\omega_1)$ and $(M_2, \omega_2)$, if and only if (1) they have the same area and (2) there exists a diffeomorphism between them sending finite- (respectively, infinite-) area ends to finite- (resp., infinite-) area ends.] This is the result that Dmitri effectively derived by hand in 2009, but I am going to accept Misha's and uncheck Dmitri's to highlight the journal reference.
Mar 4, 2012 at 18:02 history answered Misha CC BY-SA 3.0