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Timeline for algebraic VS topological ergodicity

Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0

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Mar 3, 2012 at 14:09 history edited Matthew Daws CC BY-SA 3.0
Added answer to other bit of question
Mar 3, 2012 at 10:37 comment added johnnyblade Of course thank you Matthew, I misread the word 'translate'. Regards
Mar 3, 2012 at 9:17 comment added Matthew Daws @johnnyblade: I "translated" $f$ so that $f(0)=0$, and then conclude $f=0$. So actually, the starting $f$ could be anything. It also occurs to me that the same idea works on $X=[0,1]$, just let $\phi(t)=t^2$.
Mar 3, 2012 at 7:36 vote accept johnnyblade
Mar 3, 2012 at 7:22 comment added johnnyblade Thank you Matthew, but there is still something that I don't understand. Following your argument we prove that every invariant function is the zero function, contradicting the fact that every *-automorphism of $C(X)$ leaves $I$ fixed, i.e. $I$ must be fixed by an automorphic action (which is equivalent to the topological one in the commutative case). Tell me if it's non-sense. Thank you again, Best regards
Mar 3, 2012 at 7:12 vote accept johnnyblade
Mar 3, 2012 at 7:36
Mar 2, 2012 at 21:50 comment added Matthew Daws I'm not quite sure what "locally closed orbit" means, so I'm not sure how this example interacts with pm's answer...
Mar 2, 2012 at 21:49 history answered Matthew Daws CC BY-SA 3.0