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Jan 21, 2021 at 17:47 answer added Axel Osmond timeline score: 9
Jun 11, 2013 at 23:13 comment added Zhen Lin I have seen that. It doesn't answer the question, however – I am interested in understanding where these "admissible" morphisms come from in the first place!
Jun 11, 2013 at 23:13 history edited Zhen Lin CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 11, 2013 at 22:59 comment added Urs Schreiber David is right, see here ncatlab.org/nlab/show/… (and notice that the condition imposed there is reaLLy simple and has as such nothing much to do with the oo-category theory in which it is formulated).
Jun 11, 2013 at 17:19 vote accept Zhen Lin
Jun 11, 2013 at 16:06 answer added Achilleas K timeline score: 17
May 18, 2013 at 1:16 comment added David Carchedi You may want to read about the concept of a "geometry" introduced in Lurie's DAG V. It was invented precisely to get around this problem.
Mar 2, 2012 at 7:46 comment added Zhen Lin @Andrej: No, that doesn't seem to be the case. The theory of abelian groups is algebraic, hence coherent, but the category of abelian groups is not coherent (since coherent categories have a strict initial object, while $\textbf{Ab}$ has a zero object).
Mar 2, 2012 at 6:14 comment added Andrej Bauer Because a category is equivalent to the category of models of a coherent theory iff the category is coherent? I might be getting duped by terminology, but I don't think I am.
Feb 29, 2012 at 0:17 comment added Zhen Lin Is it? I can't say I know enough about categorical algebra to see why this is plausible/implausible.
Feb 28, 2012 at 21:57 comment added Andrej Bauer Isn't this question equivalent to asking whether the category of local rings and local ring homomorphisms is coherent, as in ncatlab.org/nlab/show/coherent+category?
Feb 28, 2012 at 10:00 answer added Martin Brandenburg timeline score: 5
Feb 28, 2012 at 0:04 history asked Zhen Lin CC BY-SA 3.0