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Jul 18, 2013 at 21:14 comment added Mariano Suárez-Álvarez @MarkGrant, $\pi_1(H)$ is abelian.
Jul 18, 2013 at 15:46 comment added Mark Grant Something puzzles me. You seem to be using that a subgroup of a finitely generated group is finitely generated. But this is false (e.g. commutator subgroup of $F_2$). What am I missing? (I upvoted your answer back in the day, so hopefully I understood it then...)
Feb 26, 2012 at 5:56 vote accept MTS
Feb 24, 2012 at 16:59 history edited Tom Goodwillie CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 24, 2012 at 1:21 history answered Tom Goodwillie CC BY-SA 3.0