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Mar 26, 2019 at 0:30 review Close votes
Mar 26, 2019 at 1:33
Feb 26, 2012 at 23:13 answer added Andrej Bauer timeline score: 13
Feb 26, 2012 at 23:06 answer added Sean Eberhard timeline score: 3
Feb 26, 2012 at 22:20 history edited Goldstern
logic
Feb 24, 2012 at 6:09 vote accept MTS
Feb 23, 2012 at 22:52 comment added Timothy Chow This was problem B-4 on the 1989 Putnam. The book by Kedlaya, Poonen, and Vakil gives four solutions, including some of the ones listed here, and mentions that it is also Problem 49 in Newman's book A Problem Seminar.
Feb 23, 2012 at 21:47 answer added Goldstern timeline score: 5
Feb 23, 2012 at 20:33 comment added MTS Goldstern, thanks for that observation.
Feb 23, 2012 at 20:31 history edited MTS CC BY-SA 3.0
Clarified what was meant by "constructive"
Feb 23, 2012 at 19:40 comment added Goldstern If you assume that $X$ is countable (or contains a countable set), then your proof is constructive (or can easily be made constructive), as pointed out by Valerio Caprano. However, the "obvious" fact that every infinite set contains a countably infinite subset may be seen as nonconstructive by some. And indeed, the theorem you stated is not provable in set theory without the axiom of choice (say: in ZF). (Hint: amorphous sets.)
Feb 23, 2012 at 19:06 answer added Tony Huynh timeline score: 7
Feb 23, 2012 at 18:47 answer added Todd Eisworth timeline score: 9
Feb 23, 2012 at 18:40 answer added Aaron Meyerowitz timeline score: 4
Feb 23, 2012 at 18:01 answer added Valerio Capraro timeline score: 18
Feb 23, 2012 at 17:41 history asked MTS CC BY-SA 3.0