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Feb 29, 2012 at 16:42 comment added Nick Loughlin Yes, it seems from discussion I'd put a typo in my original formulation; thanks - it completely passed me by. It was probably an artefact from my rewriting the question first time around.
Feb 22, 2012 at 21:57 comment added Benjamin Steinberg @Nick, I rewrote the question to match your comment above as djlewis2 makes a good point. Please re-edit if this was not your intent.
Feb 22, 2012 at 21:55 history edited Benjamin Steinberg CC BY-SA 3.0
Changed the question to agree with the reformulation in the comments; deleted 6 characters in body
Feb 22, 2012 at 16:49 answer added David Lewis timeline score: 3
Feb 22, 2012 at 16:03 vote accept Nick Loughlin
Feb 22, 2012 at 14:35 answer added Benjamin Steinberg timeline score: 6
Feb 22, 2012 at 1:55 comment added Kaveh In other words, you are asking if $CFL \cap coCFL \subseteq DCFL$ or not. Interesting question. Couldn't find the answer in Hopcroft and Ullman.
Feb 21, 2012 at 22:53 comment added Benjamin Steinberg Ok no longer a duplicate.
Feb 21, 2012 at 22:50 comment added Nick Loughlin Perhaps you missed my last edit - I removed that part of the question. To clarify, my original question contained the above, as well as a "dual" question concerning the closure of the set of context-free languages w.r.t. finitary Boolean operations. In this question, I'm not looking for the closure of the class of context-free languages with respect to complements, but merely to know if the proper sub-class of CF languages which have CF complements is in fact the class DCF of deterministic CF languages.
Feb 21, 2012 at 22:27 comment added Benjamin Steinberg This is essentially an exact duplicate of mathoverflow.net/questions/51657/… which has an answer.
Feb 21, 2012 at 22:06 history edited Nick Loughlin CC BY-SA 3.0
Tidied up a bit, and made question's title more explicit; removed second sub-question.
Feb 21, 2012 at 21:46 history asked Nick Loughlin CC BY-SA 3.0