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Feb 17, 2012 at 16:53 history closed Martin Brandenburg
Dan Petersen
Neil Strickland
Qiaochu Yuan
Tom Leinster
too localized
Feb 17, 2012 at 15:13 history edited David White CC BY-SA 3.0
There were a ton of typos. I fixed all I could find
Feb 17, 2012 at 14:04 comment added Niemi Virtually every introduction to category theory will answer your question. In fact, for two categories $\mathcal{A}$, $\mathcal{B}$ there is always a product category $\mathcal{A} \times \mathcal{B}$ and its definition is as straightforward as it can possibly be. Wikipedia and nLab also know the answer: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Product_category ncatlab.org/nlab/show/product+category – Sebastian K. 0 secs ago
Feb 17, 2012 at 13:59 vote accept PULITA ANDREA
Feb 17, 2012 at 13:43 comment added Martin Brandenburg I've deleted the inappropriate tags (logic, set-theory, higher-category-theory).
Feb 17, 2012 at 13:43 history edited Martin Brandenburg
edited tags
Feb 17, 2012 at 13:42 comment added Martin Brandenburg Please read a) the FAQ of mathoverflow, b) any introduction to category theory.
Feb 17, 2012 at 13:42 comment added Buschi Sergio GIve a set $X$ you have that $X\times \emptyset=\emptyset$ (may be you get a mistake considering $X\times \{*\}=X$
Feb 17, 2012 at 13:41 answer added Kay Werndli timeline score: 1
Feb 17, 2012 at 13:34 history asked PULITA ANDREA CC BY-SA 3.0