Timeline for If $f: X \to Y$ is a finite flat morphism of schemes, $g: Y \to Z$ is a proper morphism of relative dimension one, $Z$ is affine and $E$ is a vector bundle on $Y$ with $R^1g_*E=0$ then $H^1(X,f^*E)=0$?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
12 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Feb 10, 2012 at 9:47 | vote | accept | Yosemite Sam | ||
Feb 10, 2012 at 0:35 | answer | added | Sándor Kovács | timeline score: 4 | |
Feb 9, 2012 at 23:08 | history | edited | Yosemite Sam | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
deleted 157 characters in body
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Feb 9, 2012 at 14:10 | comment | added | Yosemite Sam | sorry I fixed the title: is it still confusing you? | |
Feb 9, 2012 at 14:09 | history | edited | Yosemite Sam | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 1 characters in body; edited title
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Feb 9, 2012 at 12:28 | comment | added | user2035 | Could you please rewrite question and title to make them consistent? | |
Feb 9, 2012 at 8:28 | history | edited | Yosemite Sam | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 277 characters in body
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Feb 9, 2012 at 1:23 | comment | added | Keerthi Madapusi | Ah, yes. I was willfully misreading the first sentence, it seems! | |
Feb 9, 2012 at 1:08 | answer | added | Piotr Achinger | timeline score: 2 | |
Feb 9, 2012 at 0:46 | comment | added | Sándor Kovács | Keerthi, I think the point is, he assumes that higher direct images $R^ig_*=0$ for $i>1$, but not $i=1$, e.g., a family of curves. | |
Feb 9, 2012 at 0:30 | comment | added | Keerthi Madapusi | Do you assume that all higher direct images under $g$ are $0$? I don't understand your question, then. | |
Feb 8, 2012 at 23:48 | history | asked | Yosemite Sam | CC BY-SA 3.0 |