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Feb 10, 2012 at 9:47 vote accept Yosemite Sam
Feb 10, 2012 at 0:35 answer added Sándor Kovács timeline score: 4
Feb 9, 2012 at 23:08 history edited Yosemite Sam CC BY-SA 3.0
deleted 157 characters in body
Feb 9, 2012 at 14:10 comment added Yosemite Sam sorry I fixed the title: is it still confusing you?
Feb 9, 2012 at 14:09 history edited Yosemite Sam CC BY-SA 3.0
added 1 characters in body; edited title
Feb 9, 2012 at 12:28 comment added user2035 Could you please rewrite question and title to make them consistent?
Feb 9, 2012 at 8:28 history edited Yosemite Sam CC BY-SA 3.0
added 277 characters in body
Feb 9, 2012 at 1:23 comment added Keerthi Madapusi Ah, yes. I was willfully misreading the first sentence, it seems!
Feb 9, 2012 at 1:08 answer added Piotr Achinger timeline score: 2
Feb 9, 2012 at 0:46 comment added Sándor Kovács Keerthi, I think the point is, he assumes that higher direct images $R^ig_*=0$ for $i>1$, but not $i=1$, e.g., a family of curves.
Feb 9, 2012 at 0:30 comment added Keerthi Madapusi Do you assume that all higher direct images under $g$ are $0$? I don't understand your question, then.
Feb 8, 2012 at 23:48 history asked Yosemite Sam CC BY-SA 3.0