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Jan 8, 2021 at 18:14 comment added LSpice The referenced MSE question (to which the OP gave an answer four days later, without mentioning that it had been answered here).
Jan 8, 2021 at 18:12 history edited LSpice CC BY-SA 4.0
Deleted "Thank you" while it's on the front page
Jan 8, 2021 at 17:50 history edited Martin Sleziak
top-level tag; https://chat.stackexchange.com/transcript/10243/2021/1/8
Jan 7, 2021 at 21:29 history edited Martin Sleziak
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S Jan 7, 2021 at 21:11 history edited Glorfindel CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 7, 2021 at 19:56 review Suggested edits
S Jan 7, 2021 at 21:11
Mar 24, 2018 at 17:20 comment added Piotr Hajlasz This is one of the folklore results that is well known and hard to find. It follows from Federer's area formula, but Federer's theorem is a way to difficult for this fact. The right proof has been sketched below by Anton Petrunin. Unfortunately it is not easy to find this argument in the literature.
Feb 8, 2012 at 23:25 vote accept Appliqué
Feb 8, 2012 at 21:32 comment added Mohan Ramachandran You have to use the area formula in Federer.
Feb 8, 2012 at 21:29 answer added Anton Petrunin timeline score: 20
Feb 8, 2012 at 20:44 comment added Appliqué Yes, in the case of $n=3$, $k=2$ it is the theorem about equality of the surface integrals of first and second kinds and there is no problem. In the case of arbitrary $n$ and $k$ I can manipulate with the integral on the left and I can receive some different representations of this integral (using local coordinates), but I don't know how to reduce the integral on the right to some suitable form.
Feb 8, 2012 at 20:26 comment added Deane Yang It's not a silly question, but have you tried to work it out yourself for a smooth manifold using just the definitions and maybe the implicit function theorem?
Feb 8, 2012 at 20:19 history asked Appliqué CC BY-SA 3.0