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Timeline for Does $\bf pSet$ admit products?

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Feb 8, 2012 at 10:27 comment added fosco @Martin: no, the idea is much more simpler: in $\bf Set$ you take as $\hom(X,Y)$ the set of functions everywhere defined on $X$. In $\bf pSet$ you relax this taking any function defined on any $D\subset X$...
Feb 8, 2012 at 10:14 comment added Martin Brandenburg I don't understand the definition of the morphisms in pSet. Does $D$ belong to the data?
Feb 8, 2012 at 9:51 vote accept fosco
Feb 8, 2012 at 9:49 comment added fosco @you: let me please understand if I'm wrong in saying that "naif" products doesn't work...
Feb 7, 2012 at 23:18 comment added fosco The answer is that the only admissible function $\varnothing\to A\times B$ is the empty one. But now the diagram doesn't commute.
Feb 7, 2012 at 23:17 comment added fosco Given partial functions $f\colon X\to A, g\colon X\to B$ I should be able to define a unique $u\colon X\to A\times B$ such that the right diagram commute. But what if $dom(f)\cap dom(g)=\varnothing$?
Feb 7, 2012 at 23:17 answer added Owen Biesel timeline score: 5
Feb 7, 2012 at 23:11 comment added William I don't understand the confusion. Can you not define the product of objects $A$ and $B$ (sets) as the normal Cartesian product $A\times B$ with the normal projection maps (functions are clearly partial functions), and the product for partial functions $f,g$ (defined on $U\subset A$ and $V\subset B$ respectively) to be the partial function $f\times g$ defined on $U\times V\subset A\times B$? Also, maybe curly brackets do not appear because your/the author's notation isn't very good?
Feb 7, 2012 at 23:09 history edited fosco CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 7, 2012 at 23:03 history asked fosco CC BY-SA 3.0