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Feb 9, 2012 at 7:35 vote accept william
Feb 9, 2012 at 7:35 vote accept william
Feb 9, 2012 at 7:35
Feb 9, 2012 at 7:35 vote accept william
Feb 9, 2012 at 7:35
Feb 8, 2012 at 14:27 answer added marco timeline score: 0
Feb 8, 2012 at 1:04 answer added David E Speyer timeline score: 7
Feb 8, 2012 at 0:59 comment added David E Speyer I am pretty sure what you want is that $\alpha$ is a closed $(1,1)$ form. In particular, this includes that $\bar{\partial} \alpha=0$, since $d \alpha = \partial \alpha + \bar{\partial} \alpha$ and the two summands, being a $(2,1)$ form and a $(1,2)$ form, cannot sum to zero unless they are both $0$.
Feb 7, 2012 at 22:13 comment added william no i mean holomorphic ... i mean if its holomorphic then its also smooth. but does a solution $\varphi$ exist (on an open neighbourhood of $R$) ?
Feb 7, 2012 at 22:12 answer added Johannes Ebert timeline score: 7
Feb 7, 2012 at 22:09 comment added Ben McKay You don't mean to say that $\alpha$ is holomorphic, just smooth.
Feb 7, 2012 at 21:31 history asked william CC BY-SA 3.0