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Feb 8, 2012 at 7:53 comment added Samuel Hambleton I meant to say that the rational prime $p$ might split as $(p) = \mathfrak{p}_1 \mathfrak{p}_2$, where $\mathfrak{p}_1$ has degree $1$ and $\mathfrak{p}_2$ has degree $2$, in which case $\mathfrak{p}_1$ would have such a basis while $\mathfrak{p}_2$ does not. Your remarks are interesting anyway. I'll keep the theorem in mind. It looks like it could be handy. Thanks!
Feb 6, 2012 at 17:26 comment added Franz Lemmermeyer If the extension is not normal, the "conjugate" ideal is not in the same field; in normal cubic extensions there are no ideals of degree 2. If you're interested in class groups, a theorem of Kummer (generalized by Hilbert) states that every ideal class is generated by an ideal divisible only by prime ideals of degree 1.
Feb 6, 2012 at 2:54 comment added Samuel Hambleton Ah-ha! Thank you very much Dr. Lemmermeyer. I think that the rational prime $p \mid \gcd (\text{disc}(\alpha ), a)$ if and only if there is an ideal $(p, \pi )$ of inertia degree $2$ dividing $I$. Thus an ideal $I$ may have such a basis while it conjugate might not!
Feb 6, 2012 at 2:50 vote accept Samuel Hambleton
Feb 4, 2012 at 19:17 history answered Franz Lemmermeyer CC BY-SA 3.0