Skip to main content

Timeline for Axiom of choice and convergence

Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0

8 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Feb 1, 2012 at 18:08 answer added Andrej Bauer timeline score: 7
Feb 1, 2012 at 12:41 comment added Asaf Karagila Jean-Luc, I would think that this question fits better on math.SE.
Feb 1, 2012 at 12:20 comment added Martin Brandenburg The meta-reason is: Limits are unique.
Feb 1, 2012 at 11:53 history edited Jean-Luc Bouchot
edited tags
Feb 1, 2012 at 11:10 vote accept Jean-Luc Bouchot
Feb 1, 2012 at 10:56 answer added Valerio Capraro timeline score: 3
Feb 1, 2012 at 10:35 comment added Emil Jeřábek No, you don’t need the axiom of choice for that (unless you employ a weird definition of $\mathbb R$ or of completeness).
Feb 1, 2012 at 9:54 history asked Jean-Luc Bouchot CC BY-SA 3.0