Timeline for Axiom of choice and convergence
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
8 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Feb 1, 2012 at 18:08 | answer | added | Andrej Bauer | timeline score: 7 | |
Feb 1, 2012 at 12:41 | comment | added | Asaf Karagila♦ | Jean-Luc, I would think that this question fits better on math.SE. | |
Feb 1, 2012 at 12:20 | comment | added | Martin Brandenburg | The meta-reason is: Limits are unique. | |
Feb 1, 2012 at 11:53 | history | edited | Jean-Luc Bouchot |
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Feb 1, 2012 at 11:10 | vote | accept | Jean-Luc Bouchot | ||
Feb 1, 2012 at 10:56 | answer | added | Valerio Capraro | timeline score: 3 | |
Feb 1, 2012 at 10:35 | comment | added | Emil Jeřábek | No, you don’t need the axiom of choice for that (unless you employ a weird definition of $\mathbb R$ or of completeness). | |
Feb 1, 2012 at 9:54 | history | asked | Jean-Luc Bouchot | CC BY-SA 3.0 |