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Feb 2, 2012 at 23:01 vote accept David Harris
Feb 2, 2012 at 22:44 answer added Ori Gurel-Gurevich timeline score: 2
Feb 2, 2012 at 15:48 history edited David Harris CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 2, 2012 at 2:54 answer added Ori Gurel-Gurevich timeline score: 0
Feb 1, 2012 at 17:58 history edited David Harris CC BY-SA 3.0
Include more details about problem; added 7 characters in body
Feb 1, 2012 at 17:55 comment added David Harris @Anthony Quas, note that the number of children is at most 2. So it seems like this situation that you describe should not be possible.
Feb 1, 2012 at 13:37 answer added David White timeline score: 1
Feb 1, 2012 at 3:52 comment added Anthony Quas PS: No bound on $\mu_i$ can ever suffice: you can always (inductively) make it so unlikely that there will be any offspring that even if the maximum number of offspring are born at all of the previous stages, the probability that any of them has any offspring at the current stage is ridiculously small (of course you pay for this by having zillions of babies if it ever does happen)
Feb 1, 2012 at 3:50 comment added Anthony Quas When you say time-inhomogeneous, you mean homogenous over nodes at each time, but with a different offspring distribution for each time? Why not just apply the standard generating function method to get the generating function at the $n$th time?
Feb 1, 2012 at 3:38 history edited David Harris CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 1, 2012 at 3:30 history asked David Harris CC BY-SA 3.0