Timeline for Weyl's Equidistribution Theorem and Measure Theory
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Aug 13, 2019 at 6:05 | history | edited | Martin Sleziak | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
http -> https (the question has been bumped anyway)
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| Jan 27, 2012 at 3:25 | comment | added | Goldstern | I am not sure what you mean by "different". For me, (1) is the definition of equidistribution, (4) (or rather the equivalence between (1) and (4)) is Weyl's criterion, and (3) is the most useful consequence. They are all equivalent, so in this sense they are not different. I call the condition (3) a "generalization", because it is (apparently) a strengthening of (1) (though not strictly). | |
| Jan 27, 2012 at 2:45 | comment | added | Noam D. Elkies | How are this "natural generalization" and "classical theorem" different from Weyl equidistribution itself? (For example, that's how Körner's Fourier Analysis states and proves Weyl's theorem if I remember right.) | |
| Jan 27, 2012 at 1:42 | history | edited | Goldstern | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
reformulated
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| Jan 27, 2012 at 0:42 | history | edited | Goldstern | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
link corrected
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| Jan 26, 2012 at 23:33 | history | answered | Goldstern | CC BY-SA 3.0 |