Charles, in your answeranswer you're basically discovering the fact that the normalization is not flat (answer edited to show that it actually does provide an answer to the original question)
Let $X$ be a non-normal reduced scheme and $\sigma:\widetilde X\to X$ its normalization. Now let $\pi:\widehat X\to X$ be any finite locally projective non-isomorphism that $\sigma$ factors through, i.e., there exists a $\mu:\widetilde X\to\widehat X$ such that $\sigma=\pi\circ \mu$. Then $\pi$ is not flat. Your example is a special case of this: If $R$ and $a$ are as in your question, and we set $X=\mathrm{Spec}R$$X=\operatorname{Spec}R$, then $\pi:\widehat X=\mathrm{Spec} R[a]\to X$$\pi:\widehat X=\operatorname{Spec} R[a]\to X$ satisfies the above conditions, hence $\pi$ is not flat.
My favorite example of such a morphism is to take two copies of $\mathbb A^d$, $d\geq 2$, intersecting in a single point and mapping them to $\mathbb A^d$ in the obvious way. The target is smooth, the morphism is finite, it is étale outside a single point, but it is not flat. You can try to prove this directly or to use the fact that a finite morphism whose target is smooth is flat if and only if the source of the morphism is Cohen-MacaulayCohen–Macaulay. It is really easy to see that two copies of $\mathbb A^d$, $d\geq 2$, intersecting in a single point is not Cohen-MacaulayCohen–Macaulay.
Addendum (to respond to Charles's questions in the commentcomment below)
1) The iff statement above follows from the more general Theorem 18.16(b) on page 465 of Eisenbud's CA with a view toward AG.
2) To see that the example given is not even $S_2$ observe the following: take one regular function on each of the copies of $\mathbb A^d$ such that their values do not agree at the point of intersection. Together they give a regular function on the complement of the point which does not extend to the point. Since the dimension is at least $2$ this implies that the Hartogs condition fails and hence this object is not normal. Since it is obviously $R_1$ (again also since its dimension is at least $2$), being normal is equivalent to being $S_2$, so it is not $S_2$ and (again since its dimension is at least $2$), it is therefore not CM. You can see that for curves this would not be a problem.
- The iff statement above follows from the more general Theorem 18.16(b) on page 465 of Eisenbud's CA with a view toward AG.
- To see that the example given is not even $S_2$ observe the following: take one regular function on each of the copies of $\mathbb A^d$ such that their values do not agree at the point of intersection. Together they give a regular function on the complement of the point which does not extend to the point. Since the dimension is at least $2$ this implies that the Hartogs condition fails and hence this object is not normal. Since it is obviously $R_1$ (again also since its dimension is at least $2$), being normal is equivalent to being $S_2$, so it is not $S_2$ and (again since its dimension is at least $2$), it is therefore not CM. You can see that for curves this would not be a problem.
I can imagine that one may find this more complicated than computing a regular sequence, but once you work with the condition $S_2$ a little this seems an obvious observation. For the connection between $S_2$ and Hartogs' condition see this and this answers to another MO questionWhy does the (S2) property of a ring correspond to the Hartogs phenomenon?. I should also add that the part about being normal is absolutely unnecessary as the point about Hartogs' theorem is the fact that normal implies $S_2$, so the argument is really just the following: