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Jan 10, 2012 at 9:18 comment added tj_ I also read this part in the book of Evens. But in the tensor product $Hom_Q(Y,M) \otimes Hom_Q(Y,N) \to Hom_{Q\times Q}(Y\otimes Y,M\otimes N)$ there is no sign (likewise for $H$). Therefore I don't understand why there is suddenly a sign in the tensor product of $Hom_Q(Y,Hom_H(X,M))$ and $Hom_Q(Y,Hom_H(X,N))$.
Jan 9, 2012 at 22:22 history answered Chris Gerig CC BY-SA 3.0