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Jan 7, 2012 at 18:14 vote accept nb1
Jan 4, 2012 at 13:56 comment added Gerald Edgar Probably the desired conclusion should be that all points of $[0,1]$ are limit points. Almost all (in the sense of Lebesgue measure) numbers have that property. And so $\pi$ surely has it as well. But, as noted, whether $\pi$ has it has no proof as yet.
Jan 4, 2012 at 11:41 answer added Pietro Majer timeline score: 0
Jan 4, 2012 at 8:56 history edited nb1 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 4, 2012 at 8:47 history asked nb1 CC BY-SA 3.0